All my life I’ve been told: There is one God, manifested in three separate, distinct persons. Each is co-equal, co-eternal and neither is greater or lesser than the other. Their glory is co-equal. They never argue and they are always in agreement with each other. Views differ as the Father sending the Spirit through the Son or the Father and the Son both send the Spirit. Each person has their own divine function in agreement with the others.
Well, here are some important things to consider. The terms “trinity” and “triune” are not found in the Bible. There is not even a suggestion that this doctrine is Biblical.
Hundreds of years after Yeshua, Rome attached Bible names to this pagan doctrine, thus warping the identity of the God Christians believe in.
Let us explore the doctrine of the trinity in the light of Scripture and in the historical aspect. Most Encyclopedias and some churches will have a version of the trinity doctrine you can examine.
Some imply that the word “trinity” is not found in Scripture due to the fact the Hebrew language does not have a word for “trinity.”
First, isn’t that a signal in itself? Do you mean to tell me, after several thousand years of Israel and the Lord God being together, the Catholics (now Protestants too) can come along and re-define the identity of the Jewish God? How can we re-write God’s identity “better than” the Jewish language and Scripture already have? Then accuse the Jewish religion for being wrong?
Second, the Hebrew language does have the terminology to express the number “three” and the word “persons” if (and only if) it did describe their God. It doesn’t.
Third, where is God ever referred to as “persons” in the Bible?
Where in the Bible does it ever refer to God as “they”? The Bible does not say anywhere nor even imply that God is three persons yet one God.
Throughout history why have Babylon, Egypt, Rome, Catholics and now Protestants been the main promoters of the doctrine of the trinity and not Israel? This is because the Jewish Religion has one God period. Who do you think Messiah was?
God did not have a kid. That isn’t what Messiah means. The Pharisees weren’t mad because He said He was the son of God, they knew we are all sons of God. They wanted to kill Him because He claimed to be (and was) the Lord God of Israel, the One who led Moses and the Israelites.
We must remember that in the Jewish faith, (whose God we worship) the terms Messiah, Christ, Anointed, Son of God, Son of Man and Emmanuel (God with us) only meant one thing. God had visited and redeemed His people, not that He split into three persons in order to do so.
This is a great point from a prophecy about Messiah. Who does the prophet Micah say will be born in Bethlehem? (Micah 5:2) The Ruler in Israel to be born in Bethlehem (Messiah) whose goings forth are from “old” (before time, Hebrew gedem), from age “everlasting.” (indefinite time, Hebrew olam) Yeshua the Messiah is none other than the Lord God of Israel.
Did you notice Zacharias is calling the baby Yeshua the “Lord God of Israel.” (Luke 1: 67, 68) Messiah the Lord would arrive before he died and he knew it.
It was never question in Scripture if Yeshua was the second member of the trinity. The decision to be made was if He was Yahweh God (Father) performing the prophesied visit of Messiah. (Isaiah 9:6)
Even His name (Yeshua) means (Yahweh Savior, or God saves). Does this shed some light on “I come in my Father’s name”? (John 5:43) What was the Father’s name He came in? Yeshua.
Do you remember the verse you read every Dec. 25th? (Isaiah 9:6) “For unto us a child is born, a son is given… His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.” The Messiah is called the Father. Phillip asked to see the Father. Yeshua responded, “he that hath seen me has seen the Father.” (John 14:9)
What about the word “Godhead” in the Bible? There are only three places this word is used. The actual meanings (which are very singular) can be found in your concordance. “That which is divine” in (Acts 17:29) “Divinity” in (Rom. 1:20) “Diety” in (Col. 2:9)
Does the Bible say we have to accept the trinity doctrine without question? (Acts 17:11) (Titus 1:9)
Why do the “explanations” of the trinity leave us even more confused? Explanations such as: the three of them share equal power and equal glory, they never argue with each other or they are always agreement with each other. When we see the three of them in heaven or the three of them relate to each other intimately are other blasphemous statements. The Bible NEVER uses “they” to describe God.
If someone’s explanation of the trinity gets to be such theological, hermeneutical, philosophical, barf-illogical gobbledeegook that you cannot understand it, beware.
The trinity doctrine is impossible to explain. As soon as you use part of a verse to try to prove it, there are other verses that completely disprove the point you just made. Try it sometime, but remember every place you read “God”, it has to mean three persons.
You do not have to go to eight years of seminary to understand the Bible. How did the disciples explain the Gospel so that 3,000 people could understand enough to make a conversion decision in one day? (Acts 2:41)
I have a very learned Catholic neighbor who is now in his late 80’s. He openly admits the doctrine of the trinity isn’t Biblical. I find that fact quite interesting, but I am puzzled why he would remain where he knows more about the Bible than the Institution itself teaches. They would officially disown him for that.
Scripture never compares God to an egg (yolk-white-shell) OR to water (ice-liquid-steam). These examples of the trinity are so lame. Anyway, an egg has two membranes and an umbilicus too, that’s six parts.
When we worship God, do the three of them divide our praise up equally? (Is. 42:8) Does the “three of them” even sound Biblical?
Though correct for leading the Reformation Movement, Martin Luther had been deceived for years on 95 or more points of Roman Catholic teaching. The trinity was not a subject of concern to him. As it turns out, the trinity was the 96th point that Martin Luther did not include in his thesis nailed to the church door.
Let’s not forget John Calvin and Michael Servetus. Servetus was killed at the stake Oct. 27, 1553 in Switzerland for the crime of believing in One God and not in the trinity. Calvin believed in the trinity, but throughout his life he regularly denied the Hebrew Old Testament supported the trinity doctrine at all.
He knew the Hebrew and was honest enough not to misinterpret ‘Elohim’ to try to justify his belief. John Calvin was the principal accuser and chief prosecutor in the trial even though the court did the sentencing. Severtus also knew the Hebrew did not support the trinity, and equated Calvin’s belief in the trinity to that of Cerberus, the mythological three headed dog that guards the gates of hell. This taunting statement and his conviction cost him his earthly life.
Some try to imply ‘Elohim’ denotes the trinity. (Gen. 1:26) If this is true, why are Chemosh (Jud. 11:24), Baal-berith (Jud. 8:33), Dagon (Jud. 16:23), Baal-zebub (2 Ki. 1:2, 3), Nisroch (2 Ki. 19:37) and Ashtoreth (1 Ki. 11:5) all called elohim? Are these pagan gods “three persons yet one god” also, just because of the use of the Hebrew word “elohim”?
And God said, “let us make man in our image”. (Gen. 1:26) If God was talking, wouldn’t whoever He was speaking to (or whoever was listening), certainly not be God? What does the very next verse say? And He made man in His own image. (Gen. 1:27)
Why is God called “the Father” when it was the Holy Spirit that did the conceiving in Mary? (Matt. 1:18, 20) Doesn’t this make the Holy Spirit the Father? But wait, Yeshua said HE was the Father. (John 14:8) Are all three of them the Father? Does “three fathers” even sound Biblical?
God is our only Savior. (Is. 43:3, 10, 11) (Is. 45:21, 22) (Hos. 13:4) Now compare how (Titus 1:3, 4) and (Titus 2:10) refer to our Savior. Obviously the meaning is interchangeable. Yeshua is called “our great God and Savior.” (Titus 2:13)
We all know that God is Spirit. (John 4:24) The Holy Spirit is obviously Spirit. Does this mean there are two Spirit persons within the God of Abraham? Do you have a verse for that?
And what about the verses that speaks of the “Spirit of Christ”? (Rom. 8:9) (Phil. 1:19) (1 Pet. 1:11) Did you notice that the terms “Spirit of God” and “Spirit of Christ” are used interchangeably in one sentence? (Rom. 8:9) Does this make three Spirit persons making up the Lord God of Israel? I thought there was just one spirit. (Ephesians 4:4)
We all know that “God was in Messiah, reconciling the world unto Himself”. (2 Cor. 5:19) God was also in the burning bush (Ex. 3:2-4) and in the pillar of a cloud (Ex. 13:21) and in the pillar of fire (Ex. 13:21). Do these added manifestations make Him six persons yet one God in hex-unity?
There is widespread error that all three members of the trinity were present at Yeshua’s baptism. Does this mean that two persons of the trinity (Yeshua, and the Holy Spirit descending) were on the earth while God the Father stayed in the heavens?
But, we know that God was in Messiah reconciling the world unto Himself. (2 Cor. 5:19) Does this mean that all three trinity persons were in Yeshua while He was on earth? Is our God so limited that while as Messiah, He could not make a voice come out of heaven? (Nothing was seen, only heard.) At the same time He caused a visible something to flutter down imitating a dove’s flight. (John 1:32-34) Can God accomplish this without having to be split up into three persons in order to explain it?
Wasn’t this just a vision for John to confirm he was baptizing who he was sent to prepare the way for? (John 1:32) It does not say that any onlookers saw it also.
Historically there is no evidence of the trinity doctrine previous to Babylon (2200-1500 BC). It is also found in the Egyptian worship system (1500-1000 BC). But the trinity was never a part of the Jewish or Christian worship until Rome attached Bible names to pagan doctrines at the council of Nicea in 325 A.D. This is the point in time when Christianity was paganized or paganism was Christianized, whichever is more accurate. When the reformers left the Roman Church, the trinity doctrine was carried along to the Protestant churches without serious examination.
Some have said that the Babylonians and Egyptians had the trinity doctrine because they “must have” stolen it from the Jews. The trinity mystery doctrine had been in use in Babylon for many years before someone began writing the first Scriptures.
And more importantly, the Jews are well known for keeping their One God monotheism pure. Does it seem likely the pagans derived the trinity doctrine for their gods from the Jews, who believe and teach a totally opposite view?
Because of the words Father, Son and Holy Spirit, the trinity and baptism doctrines overlap a little. Here are a few references:
Johnson’s New Universal Encyclopedia Vol. 2, Part 1, page 586: The monotheism of the Old and New Testaments is unquestionable.
Johnson’s New Universal Encyclopedia Vol. 10, page 3: The word trinity is not found in the Scriptures and is said to have been first used by Theophilus, Bishop of Antioch, in the second century.
Catholic Encyclopedia Vol. 15, page 47: In the Scriptures there is NO single term by which the three divine persons are denoted together. (The Catholics admit it is NOT in the Bible)
Word Book Encyclopedia Vol. 16, page 7270: But the doctrine of the three in one is considered to be a mystery for which there is NOT adequate explanation.
Dictionary of the Bible by Scriptures, Vol. 1, page 241: (on baptism) The original form of words was “into the name of Jesus Christ or Lord Jesus”. Baptism into the trinity was a latter development.
New International Encyclopedia Vol. 22, page 476: The trinity doctrine is NOT found in its fully developed form in the Scriptures. Modern theology does NOT seek to find it in the Old Testament.
Now God has revealed the second Covenant of Grace as He (still God as Messiah) wishes to be known. The God of the Old Testament is still the SAME God of the New Testament. How did Yeshua respond to the devil’s tempting? (Luke 4:12) (Matt. 4:7) You shall not tempt the Lord your God. Who was the devil tempting? Yeshua, the Lord your God!
Look at the prophecy foretelling John the Baptist announcing the arrival of Messiah. (Isaiah 40:3) Pay particular attention to the terminology used for whom John was announcing. All three of these verses refer to Yeshua the Messiah being the Lord God of Israel. (John 1:23) (Luke 3:4)
How many verses does it take to disprove the false doctrine of the trinity in your mind? We are not grasping at straws here. If we can put a man on the moon and cheese in a can, why can’t we understand the Bible without adding the trinity doctrine to explain it? How’s this for a schoolyard poem? We three persons of trinity be. I am not Him and He is not Me. I am one God yet we all are three. The trinity is Catholic, look it up and see.
There can only be One Mighty God who is our Everlasting Father, Who came as the Son (Messiah) and Who imparts His Spirit upon mankind. (Isaiah 9:6)
What if the Lord wants to know if you worshipped God’s (child) Son, the second member of the trinity named Jesus Christ from Rome? OR did you worship Yeshua the Messiah, the Lord God of Israel manifest in human flesh? If this were to be the criteria for Judgment, it would be a bad day for many! How long waiver ye between these two opinions?
If the God of Israel were three persons, then everywhere in the Bible you read the word “God” would have to mean the three persons forming one God. You will soon find that this does not fit the Scriptures, nor the context, nor the meanings of the verses, and the Lord is never described as “essence.” The unbiblical doctrine of the trinity is a contradiction to God’s Word.
If Yahweh went to a costume party wearing a human Messiah disguise, would He have a different identity, or have split into three persons, or stopped being omnipresent? The $64,000 question is; What was the definition and understanding of God’s identity from 4,000 BC to 100 AD, which includes Messiah, but was previous to Roman influence and domination.
No, you do not have to understand this mysterious, inexplicable unbiblical subject. It isn’t true. Do you think after thousands of years the Lord might have mentioned that He was three separate co-equal persons, if it were true?
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